The Safavid empire was the last Persian state to rule Iraq/Mesopotamia, whose history was linked with Iran's for centuries. Their rule over it was relatively short, however, and they lost control of the region to the Ottoman Empire during the 1530s. They briefly reconquered it during the reign of Abbas the Great, before losing the region to the Ottomans for good in 1638.
So, my question is, was there any way the Safavids could've kept Iraq from falling into Ottoman hands? From what I've read (on wikipedia, I admit), Tahmasp I's early reign was a mess because, well, he assumed the throne as a child and was thus powerless to stop people from fighting over who got to be his regent. To make matters worse, when Suleiman the Magnificent began his march on Baghdad, Tahmasp already had his hands full campaigning against the Uzbeks, who were launching raids into Khorasan. Having Suleiman suffer an early death, maybe at the battle of Mohács, should probably buy the Safavids more time to shore up their defenses in Iraq.
Alternatively, is it possible for the Ottomans to ignore Mesopotamia entirely? Perhaps if Suleiman or whoever is sultan in his place is more interested in conquering new territories in the Mediterranean rather than the Middle East? Or were the Safavids seen as a genuine threat to Constantinople's power?
So, my question is, was there any way the Safavids could've kept Iraq from falling into Ottoman hands? From what I've read (on wikipedia, I admit), Tahmasp I's early reign was a mess because, well, he assumed the throne as a child and was thus powerless to stop people from fighting over who got to be his regent. To make matters worse, when Suleiman the Magnificent began his march on Baghdad, Tahmasp already had his hands full campaigning against the Uzbeks, who were launching raids into Khorasan. Having Suleiman suffer an early death, maybe at the battle of Mohács, should probably buy the Safavids more time to shore up their defenses in Iraq.
Alternatively, is it possible for the Ottomans to ignore Mesopotamia entirely? Perhaps if Suleiman or whoever is sultan in his place is more interested in conquering new territories in the Mediterranean rather than the Middle East? Or were the Safavids seen as a genuine threat to Constantinople's power?
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